CCSK Dumps Updated Dec 15, 2023 Practice Test and 120 unique questions
2023 Latest 100% Exam Passing Ratio - CCSK Dumps PDF
The CCSK certification is ideal for IT professionals who work with cloud-based technologies or are responsible for securing cloud environments. Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam certification demonstrates that an individual has a thorough understanding of cloud security best practices and can apply them to real-world scenarios. The CCSK certification is also valuable for organizations looking to hire qualified cloud security professionals or for cloud service providers looking to differentiate themselves in the market.
The CCSK exam is available online and can be taken from anywhere in the world. CCSK exam consists of 60 multiple-choice questions and must be completed within 90 minutes. It is an open-book exam, which means that candidates can refer to study materials and resources during the exam. However, this also means that the exam is designed to test the candidate's understanding of the concepts rather than their ability to memorize information.
The CCSK certification is designed for IT and security professionals, including architects, engineers, consultants, and managers, who are responsible for securing cloud computing environments. Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam certification exam is vendor-neutral, meaning that it is not tied to any specific cloud platform or technology, and is based on the CSA's Cloud Security Guidance v4.0, which is the most comprehensive guide to cloud security best practices available today. Obtaining the CCSK certification demonstrates a commitment to cloud security and provides professionals with the knowledge and skills necessary to effectively secure cloud computing environments.
NEW QUESTION # 51
What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?
- A. Scope
- B. Risk Assessment
- C. Custody
- D. Subpoena
- E. Discovery
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 52
Who is responsible for the safe custody, transport, data storage. and implementation of business rules in relation to the privacy?
- A. Data processor
- B. Data controller
- C. Data owner
- D. Data custodian
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data custodians are responsible for the safe custody. transport. data storage. and implementation of business rules
NEW QUESTION # 53
Metrics which govern the contractual obligations of cloud service are found in:
- A. Operational Level Agreement(OLA)
- B. Service Book
- C. Contract itself
- D. Service Level agreements(SLA)
Answer: D
Explanation:
The SLA is the list of defined, specific, numerical metrics that will used to determine whether the provider is sufficiently meeting the contract terms during each period of performance.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?
- A. Functional Testing
- B. Code Review
- C. Unit Testing
- D. Static Application Security Testing (SAST)
- E. Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 55
Cloud architectures necessitate certain roles which are extremely high-risk. Examples of such roles include CP system administrators and auditors and managed security service providers dealing with intrusion detection reports and incident response. They are known as high-risk because their malicious activities can lead to abuse of high privilege roles and can impact confidentiality, integrity and availability of data.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 56
In 2015, 4 million records were stolen from telecom company, XYZ ltd, and later this information was used for scam calls to get bank information from the customers of XYZ. Which was of the following protection would have helped in minimising impact of the theft?
- A. Encryption
- B. Use of VPN
- C. Repudiation
- D. Firewall
Answer: A
Explanation:
Encryption of Data would have minimised the impact of the incident and it would have prevented data being used for scam calls.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) might be limited or require pre-testing permission from the provider.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 58
GRC is responsibility of ______ in the all cloud services models
- A. Cloud Access Security Broker(CASB)
- B. Service Provider
- C. Reseller
- D. Customer
Answer: D
Explanation:
GRC and data is responsibility of the customer in all service models according to shared responsibility model.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?
- A. Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)
- B. Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)
- C. Software-as-a-service (SaaS)
- D. Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)
- E. Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 60
What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?
- A. Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.
- B. Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.
- C. Both B and D.
- D. Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.
- E. Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing?
- A. On-demand self service
- B. Resource Pooling
- C. Reduced personnel cost
- D. Metered service
Answer: C
Explanation:
The characteristics of cloud computing are
1. 0n-demand self-service: A consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider.
2. Broad network access: Capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms that promote use by heterogeneous thin or thick client platforms(e.g, mobile phones, tablets, laptops and workstations).
3. Resource pooling: The provider's computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers using a multi-tenant model, with different physical and virtual resources dynamically assigned and reassigned according to consumer demand. There is a sense of location independence in that the customer generally has no control or knowledge over the exact location of the provided resources but may be able to specify location at a higher level of abstraction(e.g, country, state or datacenter).
Examples of resources include storage, processing, memory and network bandwidth.
4. Rapid elasticity: Capabilities can be elastically provisioned and released, in some cases automatically, to scale rapidly outward and inward commensurate with demand. To the consumer, the capabilities available for provisioning often appear to be unlimited and can be appropriated in any quantity at anytime.
5. Measured service: Cloud systems automatically control and optimize resource use by leveraging a metering capability at some level of abstraction appropriate to the type of service(e.g, storage, processing, bandwidth and active user accounts).
Resource usage can be monitored, controlled and reported, providing transparency for the provider and consumer.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A cloud storage architecture that caches content close to locations of high demand is known as:
- A. Volume Data
- B. Ephemeral Storage
- C. Block Data
- D. Content Delivery Network(CDN)
Answer: D
Explanation:
A content delivery network(CDN) is a system of distributed servers(network) that deliver pages and other Web content to a user. based on the geographic locations of the user. the origin of the webpage and the content delivery server.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Logs, documentation, and other materials needed for audits and compliance and often serve as evidence of compliance activities are known as:
- A. Proof of Audit
- B. Artifacts
- C. Log Trail
- D. Documented Evidence
Answer: B
Explanation:
Artifacts are the logs, documentation, and other materials needed for audits and compliance; they are the evidence to support compliance activities. Both providers and customers have responsibilities for producing and managing their respective artifacts.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following is NOT one of the common networks underlying in Cloud Infrastructure?
- A. Storage Network
- B. Service Network
- C. Management Network
- D. Security Network
Answer: D
Explanation:
If you are a cloud provider (including managing a private cloud), physical segregation of networks composing your cloud is important for both operational and security reasons. We most commonly see at least three different networks which are isolated onto dedicated hardware since there is no functional or traffic overlap:
1. The service network for communications between virtual machines and the Internet. This builds the network resource pool for the cloud users.
2. The storage network to connect virtual storage to virtual machines.
3. A management network for management and API traffic.
Ref: Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4 (reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the vulnerabilities is inherited from general software development practice in PaaS environment?
- A. DDoS
- B. DNS spoofing
- C. Backdoors
- D. Cross
Answer: C
Explanation:
As a general practice of software development. Developer tend to leave backdoors so that they can come back later to fix issues.
NEW QUESTION # 66
In the IaaS hosted environment. who is ultimately responsible for platform security?
- A. Joint responsibility
- B. System Administrator
- C. Cloud Service Provider
- D. Customer
Answer: D
Explanation:
In IaaS hosted environment, Platform security is responsibility of the customer whereas infrastructure security is a shared responsibility between cloud service provider and the customer
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following adds abstraction layer on top of networking hardware and decouples network control plane from the data plane?
- A. Converged Networks
- B. VLANs
- C. Software Defined Networks
- D. Virtual Private Networks
Answer: C
Explanation:
Software Defined Networking(SDN):A more complete abstraction layer on top of networking hardware, SDNs decouple the network control plane from the data. This allows us to abstract networking from the traditional limitations of a LAN.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 68
What is true of searching data across cloud environments?
- A. The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.
- B. All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.
- C. You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.
- D. Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.
- E. You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following is a key component that allows programmatic management of the cloud?
- A. API Gateway
- B. Firewall
- C. APIs
- D. Control Plane
Answer: C
Explanation:
Application Programming Interfaces allow for programmatic management of the cloud. They are the glue that holds the cloud's components together and enables their orchestration. Since not everyone wants to write programs to manage their cloud, web consoles provide visual interfaces. ln many cases web consoles merely use the same APIs you can access directly.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4 (reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following statements best describes an identity
federation?
- A. A library of data definitions
- B. A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a single
cloud - C. Several countries which have agreed to define their identities with
similar attributes - D. The connection of one identity repository to another
- E. Identities which share similar attributes
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which provides guidelines for organizational information security standards including the selection, implementation, and management of controls taking into consideration the organization's information security risk environments?
- A. FIPS 140-2
- B. ISO 27002
- C. NIST 800-9
- D. ISO 27001
Answer: B
Explanation:
ISO 27002 is a standard which provides detailed description of security controls and how they need to implemented to provide effective ISMS.
NEW QUESTION # 72
As with security. compliance in the cloud is a shared responsibility model.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
As with security. compliance in the cloud is a shared responsibility model. Both the cloud provider and customer have responsibilities. But the customer is always ultimately responsible for their own compliance. These responsibilities are defined through contracts, audits/assessments. and specifics of the compliance requirements.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following is an assurance program and documentation registry for cloud provider assessments?
- A. CSA Star
- B. CSA governance charter
- C. CSA Cloud Controls Matrix
- D. CSA Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Cloud Security Alliance STAR Registry is an assurance program and documentation registry or cloud provider assessments based on the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix and Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire. Some providers also disclose documentation for additional certifications and assessments(including self-assessments).
Ref: Security Guidance v4.0 Copyright2017, Cloud Security Alliance(used for educational purpose here)
NEW QUESTION # 74
When Database as a Service is offered on Platform as a Service(PaaS) model, who is responsible for security features that needs to applied to the Databases?
- A. Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
- B. Cloud Carrier
- C. Cloud Consumer
- D. Cloud Service Provider
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is a tricky question.
When using a Database as a Service, the provider manages fundamental security, patching, and core configuration, while the cloud user is responsible for everything else, including which security features of the database to use, managing accounts, or even authentication methods.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines v4.0
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following reports is of most interest to the customer but may not be provided by Cloud Service Provider?
- A. SOC1 Type I
- B. SOC3
- C. SOC2 Type II
- D. SOC2 Type I
Answer: C
Explanation:
SOC2 Type II is the report which will be of lot of interest to the customers but it will not be provided by the cloud service provider as it may release lot of information about security controls put in place which can harm cloud service providers infrastructure adversely.
SOC2 Type II is a report on management's description of the service organisation's system and the suitability of the design and operating effectiveness of the controls
NEW QUESTION # 76
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